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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)2 ?2 q# l( ~1 c3 z/ S7 v
6 m. R2 l+ d/ F; g1 N" T% `Proof:
6 D: u2 ?" C' ^5 s8 @$ ]Let n >1 be an integer
1 Q) C1 t( Z+ [1 i* ]; ZBasis: (n=2)! ^% t8 W# u- I: r
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that& O1 d# Q9 k/ ^3 \8 r: L
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 38 R( j# Z& J$ x* r! W! p% R
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem% X: k" ^( p8 ?" }9 i
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1). v% `: B1 J7 o1 ]! y
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
% p. ?* f1 N+ m = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
1 s9 K5 b2 S8 L = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)9 z( F9 e& ^% X& ?$ _9 }
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>04 Q' u% q' m3 ]( E* ^7 S3 V
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K); v: L1 W- _4 {6 [: r# @
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)3 `7 B2 W; H+ ~5 j A1 ?
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3' q7 @( j; C5 c( Y
6 f; O0 [% C# Q2 G$ B4 X3 NConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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