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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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; `# N5 V) K) r! q! _- PProof:
% R9 e0 _) B. vLet n >1 be an integer ( S/ f- z k- P
Basis: (n=2) i3 \) s8 U$ [$ ~* f
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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9 e5 P9 A5 m. f8 [- f! ~& d3 yInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that3 I/ ~6 r1 F( w& p5 e3 x
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.3 D- s: i- D! v2 v
: \ K& l9 x' z2 x' M' d6 N
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 39 H( Q8 Y+ p, S( b2 x7 z2 w# C
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem/ ~$ _" I7 G% @0 M/ f
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)3 @) {3 h' j. V$ M. }9 w1 v
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
/ h v; P2 k% c = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K): J' b- F* ]1 N5 o9 k; U3 l" O
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
2 g. u; E- m8 B3 x" `" _; Jby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>07 \6 v( z5 V1 l0 t& F
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)% N* h1 A* p9 R- k$ p* L
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
7 o6 u4 x: x$ Q = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3- h1 w0 I3 Z5 v
$ o$ r. Y9 h# A6 ~4 ?) @Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1./ J3 s8 J7 H/ R) _, K" R
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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