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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)$ n9 E, x9 o1 b8 _
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Proof:
% `! y) q) O% J( a, }Let n >1 be an integer
8 ^, d4 O; ^2 T, ?; v3 h8 d6 @Basis: (n=2)
' _- t3 n( I$ i0 I 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 32 Y6 t. r2 O0 o8 p, ~9 `8 j' }
6 y) F. r' h4 p9 O+ g/ _Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
; @6 D* }7 P: p1 \) |% Z9 Z K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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0 w% ^& u2 Q! QNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 31 L! v& a4 d. X/ W$ T7 C
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
2 K( K) e1 o- ~9 D* @- sThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
$ b' ~' c3 I' C% r% ^( e = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
1 }. B& Q/ r2 Y = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)6 a( C6 z" }& c9 `& |
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)6 F5 V; G) A3 O% } e
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
% i2 e% h4 L! }$ cSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K); l L. W1 o3 K* O. ?9 f" d
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
?5 Y9 W' m. A' W = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
( {! W/ ^$ w& m) K( c+ v: |4 }3 U
# T1 q; X: @. [& p- GConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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